posted in Asklemmy
Doesn't tying income class to moving targets within those classes defeat the point of measuring them?
The US Census Bureau defines lower class as the lowest 20% of incomes.
Pew defines it as the lowest 2/3 of the median.
If the highest income is $100, 20% is $20.
At 2/3 the median, if the median is $30, lower-class is $20.
Is there a reason they’re tying income classes to people within those classes, and not what it costs to survive within the economy?
Replying to @ki4jgt@feddit.org
For one thing, it maximizes the amount of information the census contains: if you’re splitting a group into bins, the splitting with the lowest entropy is the one with equal-sized bins. If the bin sizes fluctuate with time (as a proportion of the overall population), the amount of information the census captures will vary as well. If your definition of lower-income includes 100% (or 0%) of the population, then assigning someone to a category tells you nothing about them you didn’t already know.